PASS - TAKER : Anonymos

CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, 4th Ed / Assessment Test for Exams 220-1001 & 220-1002

Correct : 54

72% Complete (success)

72 %

False : 21

28% Complete (success)

28 %



Anonymos 2019-09-05T14:09:57

Correct

Which of the following is not considered a system component that can be found inside a
computer?

System components are essential for the basic functionality of a computer system. Many of the landmarks found on the motherboard can be considered system components, even expansion slots, to a degree. What you plug into those slots, however, must be considered peripheral to the basic operation of the system.

Not Correct

Which of the following is a physical memory format installed directly in today’s desktop
computer systems?

DIMMs are a type of memory module. HDD is a hard drive, and SSD is a solid-state drive—both are for permanent long-term storage. RAM is what memory is called, but it is not a physical memory format.

Correct

Which of the following are components that can commonly be found on a motherboard?
(Choose all that apply.)

Motherboards commonly have RAM slots and expansion slots. Older motherboards even had CPU slots. Modern motherboards have connectors for powering cooling fans. Gyroscopes are most commonly found in mobile devices. Scanners are external devices. Although there might be one or more types of HDD interfaces built into the motherboard, the HDD itself is not.

Correct

You are buying optical discs and need to ensure that they have a large capacity. What
suffix indicates that the capacity of an optical disc is roughly twice that of its standard
counterpart?

DL stands for double (or dual) layer. With DVDs, the capacity almost doubles, but with Blu-ray Discs, it actually does. R means recordable, and RW and RE are used to designate re-writeable or re-recordable, respectively.

Correct

You are replacing a power supply with a new one. What is the name of the standard power
connector that has been used with larger hard drives since the first IBM personal computers
were introduced?

The standard peripheral power connector, or Molex connector, is commonly used on larger drives because it allows more current to flow to the drive than smaller peripheral connectors. AT and ATX system connectors are used to connect the power supply to the motherboard. A Berg connector was used for floppy disk drives. See Chapter 2 for more information.

Correct

A user has asked you to install a RAID array. Except in the case of RAID 0, which two
things do all types of RAID offer? (Choose two.)

Except for RAID 0, all implementations of RAID offer a way to recover from the failure of at least one drive, which is an example of fault tolerance, through the implementation of some mechanism that stores redundant information for that purpose. Some RAID types offer faster read and/or write performance. RAID 1, for instance, does not guarantee either.

Not Correct

The ______________ is the measurement of the number of pixels an LCD monitor can
display without the image appearing distorted.

The native resolution refers to how many pixels an LCD screen can display (across and down) without distortion. The native resolution is based on the placement of the actual transistors that create the image by twisting the liquid crystals. The contrast ratio is the measurement between the darkest color and the lightest color that an LCD screen can display. Monitors do not measure contrast ratio. Aspect ratio measures the width of the image versus its height.

Correct

Which of the following video connectors has an analog variety and a digital variety?

DVI comes in both analog (DVI-A) and digital (DVI-D) varieties. VGA is always analog, HDMI and DisplayPort are always digital.

Correct

Which of the following connectors will you not find on the end of a USB cable?
(Choose two.)

USB cables are multipurpose cables that connect many types of peripherals. Connectors include USB-C, Lightning, and eSATA. Molex connectors provide power to PATA hard drives and optical drives. A DB-9 connector is found on the end of a serial cable.

Not Correct

Which of the following is a standard computer that can access resources locally as well as
from servers but requires no specialized enhancements?

A thick client is any computer system with a standard configuration. The gaming PC has enhancements over thick clients to their CPU, video, audio, and cooling. The NAS (network-attached storage) must have specialized capabilities and services along with a faster NIC than the thick client and a RAID array. The thin client is a lesser device in comparison to the thick client, but that cost-saving feature is its enhancement. These less expensive computers can connect over the network to servers for their operating system images and applications.

Correct

Which of the following is a requirement for virtualization workstations?

Virtualization workstations require more RAM than standard systems and need to be equipped with as many multicore processors as possible. Video and audio are not resources that need to be enhanced for such workstations. Although a RAID array is a wise addition whenever a NAS with valuable information is involved, a virtualization workstation does not require one.

Correct

Which of the following is not a requirement for a NAS?

Dual monitors are not required for a network-attached storage (NAS) device; it might not even use a monitor. A NAS will use file sharing and benefit from a Gigabit NIC and RAID array.

Correct

What is the function of the laser in a laser printer?

The laser creates an image on the photosensitive drum that is then transferred to the paper by the transfer corona. The fuser heats up the toner so that it adheres to the page. The transfer corona charges the page, and the eraser lamp cleans the drum before a page is printed. A rubber blade is also used to remove toner physically from the drum.

Correct

What is the component called that stores the material that ends up printed to the page by a
laser printer?

Laser printers use toner, which they melt to the page in the image of the text and graphics being printed. A toner cartridge holds the fine toner dust until it is used in the printing process.

Correct

Which service was created by Apple to allow iPhones and iPads to print without installing
printer drivers?

AirPrint was created by Apple to let iPhones and iPads print without installing a printer driver.

Not Correct

Which network connectivity device stops broadcasts from being sent to computers on a
different network segment?

A router does not pass along broadcasts to computers on other segments. Hubs and switches send broadcasts along because they do not segment traffic at the logical network address level.

Correct

Which of the following cable types is made with a plastic coating that does not produce
toxic fumes when it burns?

The plenum is an air space within buildings used to circulate breathable air for occupants of a building. Fiber, coaxial, and UTP cables are normally enclosed with a PVC plastic coating, which produces toxic fumes when burned. For air ventilation spaces, plenum-grade cable is required. All cable types have plenum-rated versions.

Not Correct

Which of the following are standards used by coaxial cable? (Choose two.)

RG-6 and RG-59 are coaxial cable standards. RJ-11 and RJ-45 are connectors used with twisted-pair cabling.

Correct

On which port does FTP run by default?

FTP operates on ports 20 and 21. Port 25 is used by SMTP, port 53 by DNS, and port 80 by HTTP.

Correct

Which of the following protocols can be used by a client to access email on a server?

The IMAP and POP3 protocols can be used to retrieve email from mail servers. DNS is used to resolve host names to IP addresses. FTP is for file transfers, and SMTP is used to send email.

Correct

Which of the following protocols provide secure network transmissions? (Choose two.)

Secure Shell (SSH) and Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) are both secure transport protocols. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) are not inherently secure.

Correct

Which of the following is a company that provides direct access to the Internet for home
and business computer users?

An Internet service provider (ISP) provides direct access to the Internet. ASP is a programming language. DNS resolves host names to IP addresses. DNP is not a computer networking acronym.

Correct

What is the data throughput provided by one ISDN bearer channel?

An ISDN B (bearer) channel provides 64 Kbps data throughput. A home-based BRI ISDN provides two B channels.

Correct

Which of the following technologies was developed for the IoT and communicates
exclusively in the 800 MHz to 900 MHz range?

Zigbee and Z-Wave were developed specifically for the Internet of Things (IoT). Zigbee can communicate in the 2.4 GHz range as well as the 800 MHz to 900 MHz range. Z-Wave can communicate only in the 800 MHz to 900 MHz range.

Correct

One of your network users was recently caught at work browsing pornographic websites.
Which of the following servers could be installed to prohibit this activity?

A proxy server can be configured to block access to websites containing potentially objectionable material. Web servers host websites. There is no specific security server, although there are authentication servers, which provide security. A DNS server resolves host names to IP addresses.

Correct

Google Docs is an example of which type of cloud service?

Google Docs is software, so it is an example of Software as a Service (SaaS). IaaS is Infrastructure as a Service. PaaS is Platform as a Service. GaaS is neither a test objective nor currently a cloud service type.

Correct

Which type of software is required to run client-side virtualization on your home network?

The hypervisor is the key piece of software needed for virtualization. Terminal emulation, process replication, and hyperthreading are not related to client-side virtualization.

Not Correct

You are installing a new display for a laptop. Which LCD component is responsible for
providing brightness?

The backlight provides light to the LCD screen. The inverter provides power to the backlight, and the screen displays the picture. Digitizers take physical input (such as touch) and turn it into electronic data.

Correct

Your laptop has 4 GB of installed memory and uses shared video memory. If the video card
is using 512 MB, how much is left for the rest of the system?

If the laptop is using shared video memory, then the system memory is shared with the video card. If the video card is using 512 MB (half a gigabyte), then there is 3.5 GB left for the system.

Correct

A user says that their keyboard backlight was working but now it’s not. What’s the easiest
way to try to get it working again?

Most systems with a keyboard backlight have a keyboard function key to turn the backlight on or off—try that first. If not, there is likely a setting in Windows Control Panel, or possibly the BIOS. Replacing the backlight is the last resort.

Correct

When using a capacitive touch screen on a mobile device, what is the most common tool
used to input data?

Capacitive touch screens react to slight changes in electrical charges. The human finger is used as an input device for capacitive touch screens.

Correct

Which technology used by e-readers gives them longer battery life than tablets?

E-readers use electrophoretic ink, also known as E Ink. E Ink uses less energy than other LCD displays, prolonging battery life.

Correct

When setting up two NFC devices, what is the name of the mode that allows the two
devices to transmit data to each other?

Card emulation mode, reader/writer mode, and peer-to-peer mode are the three valid NFC communication modes. For two devices to transmit to each other, they will use peerto-peer mode.

Correct

Which of the following protocols can be used in close range to transfer data between a
mobile device and a computer system or to allow media to stream from the mobile device to
an audio system?

Bluetooth allows you to pair a mobile device to a computer or to a device such as an automotive sound system or headset. Data can be transferred between devices, and media can be streamed from the mobile device. SMTP is an email protocol. NFC is for short-distance data transfers, but not media streaming. Pegasus is not a computer communications protocol.

Correct

Which term refers to copying data between a mobile device and a computer system to
mirror such things as contacts, programs, pictures, and music?

Synchronizing a mobile device with a computer system allows you to mirror personal data between the devices, regardless of which one contains the most current data. Calibration refers to matching the device’s and user’s perceptions of where the user is touching the screen. Remote wipes allow you to remove personal data from a lost or stolen device. Pairing is what must be done in Bluetooth for two Bluetooth devices to connect and communicate.

Not Correct

You want to create and send encrypted emails from your smartphone. What do you need
to use?

The Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME) standard for public key encryption is used to create and read encrypted emails. POP3 and SMTP are standard email protocols. VPNs create a private network over a public network, but they do not encrypt email content.

Correct

A user calls to report that his laptop is not booting up. What is the first step you should
take?

In the best practice methodology to resolve problems, the first step is to identify the problem. Quarantining the system is not necessary. Establishing a theory of probable cause is the second step, and establishing a plan of action is the fourth step.

Correct

You are troubleshooting a network issue. What feature do switches most likely have to help
troubleshoot connectivity issues?

Switches and other connectivity devices have indicator lights to help indicate when things are working normally and when something isn’t working right. There are no port toggles, and switches don’t use beep codes. A switch might make a log entry into an event logger, but this is less likely than it having indicator lights.

Not Correct

Your laser printer has recently starting printing vertical white lines on documents it prints.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?

White streaks on printouts are most likely caused by toner on the transfer corona wire. Vertical black lines are caused by a scratch or a groove in the EP drum. If the fuser were not heating properly, toner would not bond to the paper, and you would have smearing. Faulty printer drivers will cause garbage to print, or there will be no printing at all.

Not Correct

A Desktop computer has recently started exhibiting slow performance, particularly when
opening and saving files to the hard drive. What should you try first?

Hard drive performance can slow down if the drive gets short on space, particularly under 10 percent of free space. First, try removing old files and applications to free up disk space. If that doesn’t resolve it, then defragment. If neither of those work, you could have a failing hard drive.

Not Correct

A network cable has not been working properly. Another technician suggests testing the
resistance on the cable. Which tools may be capable of doing this? (Choose two.)

A multimeter is specifically designed to test for electrical characteristics, so it would be the best tool to choose. Cable testers are for verifying that a cable works properly; some are capable of testing resistance. A loopback plug is for testing the ability of a network adapter to send and receive. A tone generator and probe is used to trace a cable from one location to another.

Correct

Which of the following will accomplish a specific task for the user?

An application is written to perform a specific task for the user, such as word processing and data analysis. Drivers allow for the operating system to communicate with the hardware. The operating system and the filesystem assist in running applications.

Correct

Which operating system is a cloud-based operating system?

The Google Chrome OS is a true cloud-based operating system, because all the data is stored in the cloud. Cloud-based operating systems require an Internet connection to access information. Android and Windows 10 use cloud storage but are not considered cloudbased operating systems. Linux is strictly a workstation operating system.

Correct

Which edition of Microsoft Windows 10 does not include Cortana?

For privacy issues, Windows 10 Education does not include Cortana, since this edition is used for academic organizations. Windows 10 Home, Pro, and Enterprise all contain Cortana.

Correct

You need to change a computer’s name and join it to a domain. Which tool should you use?

The System Properties applet (sysdm.cpl) allows you to change a computer’s name and join the system to a domain. Device Manager is used to manage hardware resources. The User Accounts applet is used to manage user accounts. Credential Manager is used to manage stored credentials.

Not Correct

You need to manage a remote Windows operating system. Which tool can you use to
perform this task?

The Microsoft Terminal Services Client (mstsc) is used to allow remote connections to Window operating systems. Msinfo32 is used to collect information from the Windows operating system. Msconfig is used to configure startup and services. Telnet is not used to connect to Windows; it is normally used with Linux/UNIX.

Correct

Which RAID system requires three or more disks to provide fault tolerance?

Striping with parity, also known as RAID-5, requires three or more disks and provides fault tolerance. Mirroring, also known as RAID-1, requires only two disks. Striping, also known as RAID-0, provides no fault tolerance.

Correct

Which Windows 10 feature replaces Internet Explorer?

Although Internet Explorer is still installed in Windows 10, the Edge browser has largely replaced it’s functionality in Windows 10. The Spotlight feature will display a random wallpaper on the login screen from Bing.com. Cortana is a digital person assistant. The Universal Windows Platform (UWP) is a development platform.

Correct

Which Windows Update branch will allow you to install preview releases of updates for
Windows 10?

The Insider Program allows for the installation of brand new features before they are publically released. The Semi-Annual Channel is normally delayed by three to four months. The Semi-Annual Channel (Targeted) branch will install updates as they are released to the general public. The Long-Term Servicing Channel never installs new features during the life of the version of Windows.

Not Correct

You need to check the status of your User Account Control (UAC) and Windows Activation
on Windows 8/8.1. Which tool will display both of these?

The Action Center will allow you to see the status of both the UAC and Windows Activation. User Settings will show only the UAC status. Firewall with Advanced Security and Windows Update will not show either of these.

Correct

Which tool will allow you to ready the operating system for imaging?

The sysprep.exe utility will allow you to ready the operating system for imaging, by resetting specific information, such as the computer name. The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit can assist in creating the steps, but it calls on the sysprep tool. The Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit allows you to customize the Windows operating system for imaging, but it does not ready the operating system for imaging. Windows Imaging (WIM) is a file format to contain the image

Correct

Which element of the boot process holds the information that instructs the operating
system to load from a specific partition?

The Boot Configuration Data (BCD) holds the information that instructs the Windows Boot Manager (bootmgr) to load the operating system from a specific partition. Winload.exe loads the operating system kernel. Bootmgr is the initial bootstrap program that reads the BCD. Winresume.exe is used when resuming a previous session that has been suspended.

Correct

Which feature allows you to create a simple local network, secured by a single password, to
share files and printers with other Windows 7 clients?

HomeGroup allows sharing of files and printers with other Windows 7 clients, secured with a single password. Domains require domain controllers and individual accounts. Workgroups require user accounts to be set up on each workstation in the network. Libraries are components of the Windows 7 operating system and HomeGroups that allow for the logical grouping of files.

Correct

You need to configure an IP address for Windows 7 to use in the event that the DHCP
server is down. Which of the following will allow you to perform this task?

You can use the Alternate Configuration tab of the IPv4 Properties dialog box to configure an IP address for Windows 7 to use in the event the DHCP server is down. The Configuration tab for the network adapter properties will allow you change the driver and settings for the adapter itself. The Set Up a New Connection or Network wizard is used for the initial setup of the network. The Remote tab of the System Properties dialog box allows you to select Remote Assistance and Remote Desktop settings.

Correct

Which network feature allows a computer to resume operation when it receives a special
network signal?

Wake-on-LAN (WoL) allows a computer to awake from sleep when it receives a special WoL packet over the network. Power over Ethernet (PoE) is a standard of running power for a device over the network connection. Quality of Service (QoS) is a mechanism used by network protocols to give certain network protocols priority through the network. Domain Name System (DNS) is a naming system used by the Internet and Microsoft that translates domain names to IP addresses.

Not Correct

Which filesystem performs on-the-fly defragmentation?

The ext4 filesystem does not suffer from fragmentation, because it performs on-thefly defragmentation. FAT is a 16-bit filesystem that suffers from fragmentation. NTFS is a journaled filesystem that suffers from fragmentation. FAT32 is a 32-bit filesystem that suffers from fragmentation.

Not Correct

Where can you find updates for Apple operating systems?

The App Store is where you can find updates for the Apple operating system. iTunes is used to purchase and download music, videos, and other content. The Keychain is used to store credentials on behalf of the user. Mission Control is used to view all the currently running applications.

Correct

Which macOS feature is similar to Windows File Explorer?

The macOS Finder is the equivalent to Windows File Explorer. The Keychain is a password-management system for the operating system. iCloud is a cloud-based storage and backup service. Spotlight helps you find applications, documents, and other files.

Correct

Which network protocol and port does RDP operate on?

The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) operates on TCP port 3389. The SSH protocol operates on TCP port 22. The Telnet service operates on TCP port 23, and HTTPS operates on TCP port 443.

Not Correct

Which line would be used to comment Windows batch script code?

The line REM comment is used to comment Windows batch script code. The line //comment is used to comment JavaScript code. The line 'comment is used to comment VBScript code. The line # comment is used to comment Bash script code and PowerShell code.

Not Correct

Your system log files report an ongoing attempt to gain access to a single account. This
attempt has been unsuccessful to this point. What type of attack are you most likely
experiencing?

A dictionary password attack occurs when a user account is repeatedly attacked using a variety of passwords. A rootkit attack would not be immediately seen and would not show as an ongoing effort. A worm attack would not be visible as an ongoing attempt to gain access. TCP/IP hijacking is a form of a man-in-the-middle attack

Correct

A server in your network has stopped responding to legitimate requests from users due to a
malicious influence. Which type of attack has occurred?

A denial-of-service (DoS) attack is used to disrupt legitimate requests from being answered. A keylogger is used to steal credentials by recording keystrokes. A botnet is a group of computers that are under the control of a threat agent. Social engineering is a process in which an attacker attempts to acquire information about your network and system by social means, such as talking to people in the organization.

Correct

You have found that several employees are using the organization’s email system to solicit
personal business. What policy would define the abuse of this system?

The acceptable use policy (AUP) defines the appropriate use of email and other organizational systems and resources. Mobile device management (MDM) helps an administrator control mobile devices so that data is not exposed. Data loss prevention (DLP) is used to prevent personal and confidential information from being emailed outside of the organization. Email filtering filters email coming into the organization.

Correct

A user wants to ensure that all contacts from her mobile device are copied onto her
computer before migrating to a new device. Which of the following processes can
accomplish this?

Synchronization can copy all contacts, programs, email messages, pictures, music, and videos between a mobile device and a computer. Mirroring is a term reserved for when devices replicate themselves to similar devices. Calling the contacts won’t achieve the desired result, and emailing contacts is inefficient and does not immediately result in placing the contacts on the computer.

Correct

Which mobile operating system is typically associated with the .ipa extension?

The .ipa file extension is for iOS App Store package files. Android apps have an extension of .apk. The Windows Phone OS is typically associated with the .xap extension. Blackberry OS uses .jad. The latter of the two phone types were not discussed in detail in this book.

Not Correct

A technician is configuring a new Windows computer for a home office. Which of the
following steps should the technician take to secure the workstation?

Renaming the default accounts on a new Windows computer is the easiest way to secure the operating system. Configuring single sign-on should only be performed if a resource is required that only uses SSO as authentication. Disabling Windows Update will do the opposite of securing the operating system. Disabling Action Center popups will also do the opposite of securing the operating system.

Not Correct

Which critical system generally requires third-party tools to troubleshoot performance
problems?

Graphics cards usually require third-party tools to diagnosis performance problems. RAM problems, CPU problems, and network problems can be diagnosed inside the operating system from Task Manager.

Correct

What is the last step that should be performed when removing malware?

The last step in the malware-removal process is the education of the end user to prevent future occurrences of infection. Identifying the malware is the first step in the malwareremoval process. Enabling System Protection is one of the last steps, but it is not the last step. Scheduling a scan should be performed after you have remediated the malware.

Not Correct

Your mobile device is suffering from an intermittent wireless connection. What is
recommended to alleviate signal drops?

By using the 5 GHz wireless band, you can limit the amount of interference from external devices, such as microwave ovens and Bluetooth devices. Shortening the SSID will have no effect on intermittent signal drops, nor will reducing power on the WAP. Using the 2.4 GHz band will probably make signal drops worse.

Correct

While working on a user’s system, you discover a sticky note attached to the bottom of the
keyboard that has their username and password written on it. The user is not around, and
you need to verify that the network connection is working. What should you do?

You should text the user and let them know that you need to verify their network connection. You should not log in as another person, with their username and password. You should not log in and stay logged in when you are finished. You should definitely not log in and change the user’s password.

Correct

While installing a new network card, you accidentally broke a component off of the card.
What should you do?

You should be honest and inform the customer of the situation. Explaining that the card was broken out of the box is untruthful and deceptive. Installing the card anyway will cause new problems. Leaving everything as-is until you can locate a new card does not help the customer, since you’ve created a new dilemma.

Correct

Which regulation is enforced by Health & Human Services (HHS) to regulate the privacy
of patient information related to health services?

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affects healthcare providers and providers that process health records. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) is enforced by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and regulates sensitive financial information and financial records. The Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) affects education providers and organizations that process student records. The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) affects providers of financial services and safeguards customer information.

Not Correct

Which of the following are good measures to take to help to prevent ESD? (Choose two.)

Long hair or neckties can very easily hold a static charge and damage computer parts. In addition, if you don’t have an ESD strap or mat, you should perform self-grounding before you touch sensitive computer equipment. Lower humidity actually increases the risk of ESD. Taking off your shoes will not limit ESD.

Correct

Which of the following screwdrivers has a splined head?

A Torx screwdriver has a splined head, which is used for greater gripping of the screw. A flat-tipped screwdriver, as the name suggests, has a flat tip. A Phillips screwdriver has a cross, which is used for better gripping over a normal flat-tip screwdriver. An axial screwdriver is not a type of screwdriver.

Not Correct

Which type of software licensing agreement usually provides free trial software, with the
expectation that you will pay for it if you decide to keep it?

Shareware often provides a free trial of a program, with the expectation that you will pay for it if you keep it. Freeware and open-source applications are generally totally free, although the developers may ask for donations. Single-user software is licensed for one user.